ISTQB: International Software Testing Qualification Board
CSTE :Certified Software Tester
In ISTQB,Two Types are there:
1)Foundation Level
2)Advanced Level
For Foundation Level:
i) Eligibility:The candidate should
atleast learn Software Testing basics.
For Advanced Level :
i)should have minimum 2 Testing experience
years
Thursday, April 2, 2009
CSTE-certified software testing engineer April 22nd 2006
Objective Questions:
1. Which communication skill will be neglected by most
a. Reading
b. Listening
c. Writing
2. Therapeutic listening is
a. Sympathetic listening
b. Listening to pieces of information…
3. Which model demonstrates relation between 2 or more parameters of effort, duration or resource?
a. Cost
b. Constraint
c. Function Point
4. In which model expertise can be used to estimate cost
a. Top-Down
b. Expert Judgment
c. Bottom-Up
5. Two objective questions on responsibility like who is responsible in issuing IT policy, work policy etc.
6. Fit for use is
a. Transcendent
b. Product Based
c. User Based
d. Value Based
7. Re-Use of data is done in which type of testing (Similar type 2 questions on retesting and regression testing)
a. Capture/Play back
b. System Testing
c. Regression Testing
d. Integration Testing
8. one question each on configuration management / Change Management / Version Control.
9. In Acceptance testing, which data is used.
a. Test Cases
b. Use Case
c. Test Plan
10. In four components of FIT, reliability is included in (Similar type 2 qs)
a. Data
b. People
c. Structure
d. Rules
11. Obligations of both contractual parties should be spelled out in
a. What is done
b. Who does it
c. When it is done
d. How it is done
12. Dates on which Obligations need to be filled out should be specified in
a. What is done
b. Who does it
c. When it is done
d. How it is done
13. Two questions on Internal Auditor and Internal Control responsibilities
14. One question on ERM model
15. One question on Control Frame Work Model
16. Two questions on CMM 5 levels of maturity (Like in which level controls are implemented).
Subjective Questions:
1. You gave the software for independent testers. You are responsible for Unit, Integration, System and Acceptance testing. Explain about each testing methods and tell which testing can be given to Independent Testing and Which for development team.
2. Tell about any 3 tools and vendor of the tools.
3. One question on Optimum testing.
4. You developed Risk Plan, Test Plan, Test Scripts. You are doing testing. At this point you got major requirements change. What changes are required to in-corporate these changes in your plan.
5. Explain about
Complexity Measures
Data Flow Analysis
Symbolic Execution
6. Acceptance Test Plan for “Inventory Control Software” contents and explanation.
7. What are CSFs. What are the CSFs that u ll look for in a contactor delivered software. Define them.
8. Security Vulnerabilities for e-comm application.
9. E-commerce project is newly developed in your organization. You are not able to test all types of Operating Systems and Browsers. Prepare mitigation plan.
10. Explain V-Model.
11. Reliability and maintainability are certain Quality factors given explicitly in the requirements. If so, list a few other QFs for a web based project and write the rationale for selecting the same.
12. 5 important things you consider for writing test plan, why do you think they are important.
13. The UI for a defect management tool.
14. Difference between Acceptance and System Testing.
15. Mention and write on a few techniques for the defect prevention - internal control testing.
16. 3 important issues for wireless technology.
17. One question on Pareto Charts - Like gave a scenario for no. of critical, minor and major bugs and no. of days to fix the bugs. Analyze the scenario.
18. What are important Quality factors that u will test for in a multiple workstation scenario that u will not do in a single work station scenario.
19. The contents of a system test report.
20. List 5 test metrics and explain how u can use them.
21. Which steps in a testing process are defect prone- explain why?
22. What according to you are the important docs that u would refer when u r testing a change that has been made in a project that has been released.(i.e. operational)
23. What do u mean by defect expectation. How can u use it for improving the testing process.
24. Mention three techniques for unit testing. State an objective for unit testing, Based on those, how will ensure that the unit testing has complied to the expectations.
25. Steps involved in testing for security.
26. What are the important things that u ll look for during a demo of a contractor software.
27. How do u use control charts for controlling the testing process. Explain control charts.
28. If the code to be delivered will be delivered after a week but no change in release date, how will you as test manager plan yr test. (a question that has appeared in lot of previous question papers. the phrasing is wrong here. but the same)
29. As a test manager - test skill set relates question.
CSTE-certified software testing engineer Sept 16th 2006
Part 1 - Objective – 50 Questions – 45 Min.
Part 2 - Subjective – 10 Questions – 75 Min.
Part 3 - Objective – 50 Questions – 45 Min.
Part 4 - Subjective – 10 Questions – 75 Min.
Objective Questions
1. As a general rule, __________ measures are much more important.
a. Subjective
b. Objective
2. If the measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the term as
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Calibration
d. Ease of Use and Simplicity
3. The term __________ refers the degree to which a measure actually measures what it was intended to measure.
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Calibration
d. Ease of Use and Simplicity
4. When basic quality aspects have been identified the “standards” should be defined by
a. IT Team
b. Project Manager
c. Quality Assurance personal
d. Management
e. Development Team
5. The “standards” for the software developed using new technology should be defined by
a. IT Team
b. Project Manager
c. Quality Assurance personal
d. Management
e. Development Team
6. If the COTS software developed by the contractor which is from the another country, then the following problem arises:
a. Cultural differences
b. Communication barriers
c. The two words having the same name in diff. countries
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
7. The ‘V’ represents the following term:
a. Verification and Validation
b. Static testing and Dynamic testing
c. Black box and White Box testing
d. Software development process and Software testing process
8. Test Readiness Review is conducted by the
a. Project Manager
b. Test Manager
c. Quality Assurance Personnel
d. User/Customer
9. Acceptance testing is the ________ type of testing
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Shoe box testing
d. Structural testing
10. __________ is not the White box testing technique.
a. Condition Coverage
b. Decision Coverage
c. Test script coverage
d. User specified Data coverage
e. All of the above
11. Event identification, Risk Response are the term defined in the ___internal control model
a. COSO Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) Model
b. COSO Internal Control Model
c. CobiT Model
12. A statistical technique to assess, monitor and maintain the stability of a process.
a. Pareto Chart
b. Control Chart
c. Run Chart
d. Cause and Effect Diagram
e. Histogram
13. Determination to continue with the software development or not is determined from the
a. Inspection
b. In-process Review
c. Phase end review
d. Don’t remember other options
14. The following is the component for the FIT
a. Data
b. Structure
c. People
d. Rule
e. All of the above
15. A major obstacle for deployment of wireless networks is in the
a. Standards
b. Coverage
c. Security
16. Hand-held and internet enabled devices are example of
a. Electronic equipment
b. Wireless Applications
c. Computer devices
17. Therapeutic listening is
a. Sympathetic listening
b. Listening to pieces of information…
c. Analyzing the listening of the speaker
18. Function point is a measure of
a. Effort
b. Complexity
c. Usability
d. Size
19. Acceptance Testing is the responsibility of the:
a. Programmer
b. Project Leader
c. Independent Tester
d. Assistance programmer
e. User
20. While deciding the Test tool the following factors should be considered
a. Testing for the next builds/releases after making changes
b. Testing where large volumes of data is required
c. Testing based on the UI interface
d. All of the above
b
a. Customer says the product is ready
b. Tester says the testing is completed
c. Don’t remember the other options
22. Auxiliary code which sets up an appropriate environment and calls the module is termed as
a. Driver
b. Function
c. Stub
d. None of the above
Subjective Questions:]
1. Define the guidelines that are helpful in developing compatibility and motivation of a Software project team.
2. Draw the Pareto chart and explain about it.
3. How do u use control charts for controlling the testing process. Explain control Charts with the diagram.
4. You gave the software for independent testers. You are responsible for Unit, Integration, System, Regression and Acceptance testing. Explain about each testing methods and tell which testing can be given to Independent Testing and Which for development team.
5. Define the Risk, Risk analysis, threat, vulnerability and Control.
6. Explain and diagram report which will be used for reporting uncorrected and corrected defects to the development team?
7. List 5 important things you consider for writing test plan, why do you think they are important.
8. List 5 important parts of an Acceptance test plan and briefly explain the importance of it to your customer.
9. Aspects of computer software that should be observed during the demonstration of COTS software?
Commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) is a term for software or hardware products that are ready-made and available for sale, lease, or license to the general public. They are often used as alternatives to in-house developments or one-off government-funded developments. The use of COTS is being mandated across many government and business programs, as they may offer significant savings in procurement and maintenance. However, since COTS software specifications are written by external sources, government agencies are sometimes leery of these products because they fear that future changes to the product will not be in their control.
10. What are the product standards for a. Test Plan b. Test Script c. Test Report
Part 2 - Subjective – 10 Questions – 75 Min.
Part 3 - Objective – 50 Questions – 45 Min.
Part 4 - Subjective – 10 Questions – 75 Min.
Objective Questions
1. As a general rule, __________ measures are much more important.
a. Subjective
b. Objective
2. If the measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the term as
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Calibration
d. Ease of Use and Simplicity
3. The term __________ refers the degree to which a measure actually measures what it was intended to measure.
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Calibration
d. Ease of Use and Simplicity
4. When basic quality aspects have been identified the “standards” should be defined by
a. IT Team
b. Project Manager
c. Quality Assurance personal
d. Management
e. Development Team
5. The “standards” for the software developed using new technology should be defined by
a. IT Team
b. Project Manager
c. Quality Assurance personal
d. Management
e. Development Team
6. If the COTS software developed by the contractor which is from the another country, then the following problem arises:
a. Cultural differences
b. Communication barriers
c. The two words having the same name in diff. countries
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
7. The ‘V’ represents the following term:
a. Verification and Validation
b. Static testing and Dynamic testing
c. Black box and White Box testing
d. Software development process and Software testing process
8. Test Readiness Review is conducted by the
a. Project Manager
b. Test Manager
c. Quality Assurance Personnel
d. User/Customer
9. Acceptance testing is the ________ type of testing
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Shoe box testing
d. Structural testing
10. __________ is not the White box testing technique.
a. Condition Coverage
b. Decision Coverage
c. Test script coverage
d. User specified Data coverage
e. All of the above
11. Event identification, Risk Response are the term defined in the ___internal control model
a. COSO Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) Model
b. COSO Internal Control Model
c. CobiT Model
12. A statistical technique to assess, monitor and maintain the stability of a process.
a. Pareto Chart
b. Control Chart
c. Run Chart
d. Cause and Effect Diagram
e. Histogram
13. Determination to continue with the software development or not is determined from the
a. Inspection
b. In-process Review
c. Phase end review
d. Don’t remember other options
14. The following is the component for the FIT
a. Data
b. Structure
c. People
d. Rule
e. All of the above
15. A major obstacle for deployment of wireless networks is in the
a. Standards
b. Coverage
c. Security
16. Hand-held and internet enabled devices are example of
a. Electronic equipment
b. Wireless Applications
c. Computer devices
17. Therapeutic listening is
a. Sympathetic listening
b. Listening to pieces of information…
c. Analyzing the listening of the speaker
18. Function point is a measure of
a. Effort
b. Complexity
c. Usability
d. Size
19. Acceptance Testing is the responsibility of the:
a. Programmer
b. Project Leader
c. Independent Tester
d. Assistance programmer
e. User
20. While deciding the Test tool the following factors should be considered
a. Testing for the next builds/releases after making changes
b. Testing where large volumes of data is required
c. Testing based on the UI interface
d. All of the above
b
a. Customer says the product is ready
b. Tester says the testing is completed
c. Don’t remember the other options
22. Auxiliary code which sets up an appropriate environment and calls the module is termed as
a. Driver
b. Function
c. Stub
d. None of the above
Subjective Questions:]
1. Define the guidelines that are helpful in developing compatibility and motivation of a Software project team.
2. Draw the Pareto chart and explain about it.
3. How do u use control charts for controlling the testing process. Explain control Charts with the diagram.
4. You gave the software for independent testers. You are responsible for Unit, Integration, System, Regression and Acceptance testing. Explain about each testing methods and tell which testing can be given to Independent Testing and Which for development team.
5. Define the Risk, Risk analysis, threat, vulnerability and Control.
6. Explain and diagram report which will be used for reporting uncorrected and corrected defects to the development team?
7. List 5 important things you consider for writing test plan, why do you think they are important.
8. List 5 important parts of an Acceptance test plan and briefly explain the importance of it to your customer.
9. Aspects of computer software that should be observed during the demonstration of COTS software?
Commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) is a term for software or hardware products that are ready-made and available for sale, lease, or license to the general public. They are often used as alternatives to in-house developments or one-off government-funded developments. The use of COTS is being mandated across many government and business programs, as they may offer significant savings in procurement and maintenance. However, since COTS software specifications are written by external sources, government agencies are sometimes leery of these products because they fear that future changes to the product will not be in their control.
10. What are the product standards for a. Test Plan b. Test Script c. Test Report
CSTE-certified software testing engineer- JUNE 17th 2006
Objective Questions:
1. A question on fit components. Which of the following contributes to fit.
a. Data b. Structure c. People d. Rule e. All of the above
2. Reliability, timeliness, consistency are included in which component of fit
a. Data b. Structure c. People d. Rule
3. Who will develop the test process for software development using new technology?
a. Management b. Project team c. Auditor d. Tester and few more options
4. Which of the following are relatively complete acceptance criteria?
a. Performance should increase b. Response time should be with in 10 sec Few more statements.
5. One question was on "Experienced people can be used as a tool for estimating the cost- Budgeting"
6. The communication type which is rarely emphasized
a. Listening Few more options...
7. There were 2 questions on maturity level e.g which level enforces control for technology.
8. There were 3 question on standard, policy and procedure.
9. Which of the following model has these steps .. event identification , risk assessment, risk response
a. ERM b. COSO internal control framework c. CobiT model
10. Utilize the computer resources to perform their work.. belong to which type of activity specified below
a. Interface b. Development c. Computer operation
11. Obligations of both contractual parties should be spelled out in detail in which part of the contract?
a. What b. Who c. When d. How
12. There was a question on "when the contracted software will be completed"
13. Test planning activity which includes starting and end time for each test milestone.
a. Budgeting b. Scheduling c. Estimation d. Staffing
Subjective Questions:
1. There are many factors like maintainability and reliability among softwares. Give 5 most important software quality factors that u would mention for testing a web based testing?
2. Create a Test plan for a simple project not a complex project?
3. Write a standard template for testplan, testscript, Status report of a project?
4. Design a screen which will show the fields necessary for a defect description? Diagram a defect reporting tool screen and label what all things you would need to mention to log a defect?
5. Question related to usecase like guidelines for writing usecase for customer?
6. Draw a control chart and explain how it can be used to see that the testing process is in control?
7. Difference between system test and acceptance test?
8. Aspects of computer software that should be observed during the demonstration of COTS software?
9. Define unit, integration, system, regression, acceptance testing and explain what would you recommend for the new independent test team formed. Previously in the organization, testing was being performed by software development team?
10. Explain any 4 factors for preventive controls?
11. Question on Security Testing technique. What tests you would include in the testplan for testing security with minimal knowledge about security testing?
12. Risks involved in testing wireless technology and how will u develop controls on it to gain confidence about the wireless technology used.
13. Give MEASUREMENTS for
a] Test Effectiveness and b] Test Efficiency
14. Your Company is about to roll out an E-Commerce application. It is not possible to test the application on all types of browsers on all platforms and operating systems. What steps would you take in the testing environment to reduce the business risks and commercial risks?
15. Developing compatibility and motivation with a test team helps assure effective testing. List at least four guidelines you would follow to develop compatibility and motivation within your test team?
16. In a development project Test planning, resource allocation , test scripting is also completed. Testing is being executed. At this stage if there is a major change in requirement, what will be the tester’s role here (actions in response to the changes) .- The question is already asked in one of the previous year papers .
17. There is a delay of 5 days in the development project. How will the tester handle the testing activities, without changing on resources, working time, …. - The question is already asked in one of the previous year papers.
18. Explanation on total number of defects found Vs defects corrected using Graph.
19. Explain and diagram report which will be used for reporting uncorrected and corrected defects to the development team?
20. one question on control chart
CSTE-certified software testing engineer-4
CSTE Sept 17, 2005:
Objective Paper1:
Q1. Who defined the standards?
A) ISO
B) QAI
Ans. ISO
Q2. Juran is famous for
A) Quality Control
B) Management
Ans. Quality Control
Q3. Which one is not Statistical Tool?
A) Cause & effect Graphing
B) Stratification
C) Run Chart
D) Regression Analysis
Ans. Cause & effect Graphing
Q4. Histogram refers to
A) Bar Chart
B) Run Chart
C) Pareto
Ans. Bar Chart
Q5. Who are there in External IT TEAM?
A) Non Developer
B) Customer/ User
Q6. Which one is not Structural Testing?
A) Regression
B) Parallel
c) Acceptance
d) Stress
Ans. Acceptance
Q7. Who is not part of Inspection?
A) Prj Manager
B) Author
c) Moderator
d) Reader
e) Inspetor
Ans. Prj Manager
Q8. Tester job is not to
A) Report Defect
b) Who entered the defect in system
Ans. Who entered the defect in system
Q9. Which one is not secondary role of tester
A) Raising Issues
b) Instilling Confidence
c) cts improving process
d) Insight
e) developer work
Ans. developer work
Q10. Acceptance testing is
A) White Box
b) Black box
c) White box & black Box
d) none of the above
Ans. Black box
Q11. Deming 14 principle includes
A) mobility of mgmt
b) new philosphy
c) adobt leadership
d) both b& c
e) both a & c
Ans. both b& c
Q12 Configuration Management tool used in which phase.
A) Unit tetsing
b) Integration
c) accepting
d) all the phases
Ans. all the phases
Q13. Max Defects created in which phases
A) req
b) design
c) Implementaion
d) Coding
Ans. Req
Q14. 50% Defect found in which phase
A) req
b) design
c) Implementaion
d) Coding
Ans. req
Q15. defects are least costly in which phase
A) req
b) design
c) Implementaion
d) Coding
Ans. req
Some questions from Paper2 are below:
1) Software inspections categorize defects as Wrong, Missing and Extra.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
2) The purpose of Risk Management in a project is to
A) Eliminate Risks
B) Minimize Risks
C) Avoid risks
D) Anticipate the risks
3) Testing of the system to demonstrate system compliance with user requirements is:
A) Black box testing
B) System testing
C) Independent testing
D) Acceptance Testing
4) Function point is a measure of
A) Effort
B) Complexity
C) Usability
D) None of the above
5) An activity that verifies compliance with policies and procedures and ensures that resources are conserved is
A) an inspection
B) an audit
C) a review
D) an assessment
6) Which is the application for the process management and quality improvement concepts to software development and maintenance.
A) Malcolm Baldridge
B) ISO 9000
C) QAI
D) QS14000
7) Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs?
A) 10-20
B) 30-60
C) 70-80
8) Software errors are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle?
A) Requirements
B) Construction
C) Acceptance test
D) Design
9) Which of the following test approaches is not a Functional test approach?
A) Control Technique
B) Stress Technique
C) Regression Technique
D) Cause/effect Graphing
E) Requirements
10) Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things
A) True
B) False
11) Juran is famous for
A) Quality Control
B) Quality Assurance
C) Trend Analysis
12) Top down & Bottom Up are the part of Incremental Testing
A) True
B) False
13) Achieving quality requires:
A) Understanding the customers expectations
B) Exceeding the customers expectations
C) Meeting all the definitions of quality
D) Focusing on the customer
E.) All the above
14) Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing
Objective Paper3:
Q1. there is a application which is delivered to the customer now customer found bugs and assume each bug cost is $125 and there are 4 bugs found each day and there are 5 working day. What should be the cost to fix those bugs
A) $300
b) $25000
c) $ 15000
d) $ 13,000
e) $ 26,000
Ans $2500
Q2. Tester should know
A) Test planning
b) Automation tool
c) Defect tracking tool
d) programming language
Ans. Defect Tracking tool
Q3. Pareto Analysis
A) 80-20 rule
b) Trend analysis
Ans. 80-20 Rule
Q4. Testing efforts in SDLC
A) 10-20 %
b) 30-60%
c) 60-80%
d) 80-90%
Ans 30-60%
Q5. Critical Listening is
A) Listen analyses what speaker said
b) Listen what is required
c) Listen only summary
Ans. Listen analyses what speaker said
Q6. Who finds vulnuralibility in system?
A) ICO
b) ISS
c) It Manager
Ans. ICO
Q7. COQ is not
A) Production
b) Appraisal
c) Prevention
d) Failure
Ans. Production
Q8. Training come under what category cost of quality?
A) Appraisal
b) Preventive
c) Failure
d) none of the above
Ans. Preventive
Q9. Why testing is called negative
A) Easy
b) delay in implementation
c) No training reqd
Q10. Incremental testing is Top down & bottom Up testing
A)True B) false
Q11. Effectiveness is doing right thing & efficency is doing thing right
True/ false
Ans False
Q12. Which one is not part of DemindA) Plan
b) do
c) check
d) act
e) risk analysis
Ans. risk analysis
Q13. Defect fixed in which phase is lease cost
A) same phase
b) production
c) next phase
d) none
Ans. same phase
Q14. In White box testing test coverage is
a) Decision
b) Statement
c) branch
d) modified decision
e) user specified data coverage
Ans. Decision
Q15. Test Plan should not contain
A) Scope
b) Objective
c) Policy
d) Risk Analysis
Ans. policy
Q16. This question was on Test coverage?
Q17. Acceptance Testing is the responsibility of the:
A) Programmer
B) Project Leader
C) Independent Tester
D) Assistance programmer
E) User/Customer
Q18. Cost of Quality is least among
A) Prevention
B) Appraisal
C) Failure
Subjective Paper1: (Most of the subjective questions were from the back of CSTE book.)
1. Why we need to test the software.
2. Write the procedure for Test Plan, Test Script, Test Status Report.
3. You have to test the Web Application, what should be considered for the same.
4. Write test cases for the Data model & data field validation.
5. There is applications which can be accessible by one terminal & other by multiple terminals, write the points which won’t be considered for the Single terminal Application (Test factors)
6. Write the Test Strategy.
Subjective Paper 2:
1. Differentiate between Verification & validation. 15 marks
2. Define Test Efficiency & test Effectiveness. 15 marks
3. Your client would like to do Acceptance test on one of your projects but does not know to prepare a test plan for that. Describe the components that should be included in the test plan. 30 marks
4. You are the tester in the organization and organization thinks that the tester also introduce defects in the system, write the 5 such defects introduced by tester in the system. 15 marks
5. What is Over Testing? 15 marks
6. You have to do the Unit Testing of the system, define what is Unit testing and how it can be done, what are the types of it also how can you ensure that your application is compliance to the standards. 30 marks
7. Define Equivalence portioning, Boundary value Analysis and Error Guessing with examples. 15 marks
8. Your company is doing a project in automation of aircrafts and timing. You are asked to involve in the testing. What should be the testing strategy for that. One Airline Web Application has to be tested, write test factor or What is to be tested? (Landing & take off) 15 marks
9. Define
a) Boundary Analysis
b) Equivalent Partitioning
c) Error Guessing
Give one example for each.
Subjective Paper 1 - December 2005:
1. Describe four tests you would use to test COTS software.
2. A Web-application is to be installed but suspected that it will might fail in production. Describe four tests you would recommend to your manager to answer the question “How long it would take for the application to recover after it fails”
3. You are the Test Manager of a company, which has outsourced its testing activities. What you would state to your IT Manager in terms of your responsibilities as Test Manager to give him assurance that testing would be conducted properly
4. Describe any four processes you would establish in a test environment and why?
Subjective Paper 2 - December 2005:
1. What would you include in a defect report.
2. What is “v” in v-testing concept and list the stages.
3. Draw a Unit testing workbench, describe each activity in the workbench.
4. You are to introduce automated testing tools. List any four automated test tools with vendor name and why did you choose them.
5. Describe Risk, risk analysis, threat, vulnerability, internal control.
6. Describe statement, branch, condition, expression, path coverage
7. Describe any 3 defect-related metrics.
8. For a web-based application, list 4 important quality factors you would test for. Also state why are they important.
Objective Paper1:
Q1. Who defined the standards?
A) ISO
B) QAI
Ans. ISO
Q2. Juran is famous for
A) Quality Control
B) Management
Ans. Quality Control
Q3. Which one is not Statistical Tool?
A) Cause & effect Graphing
B) Stratification
C) Run Chart
D) Regression Analysis
Ans. Cause & effect Graphing
Q4. Histogram refers to
A) Bar Chart
B) Run Chart
C) Pareto
Ans. Bar Chart
Q5. Who are there in External IT TEAM?
A) Non Developer
B) Customer/ User
Q6. Which one is not Structural Testing?
A) Regression
B) Parallel
c) Acceptance
d) Stress
Ans. Acceptance
Q7. Who is not part of Inspection?
A) Prj Manager
B) Author
c) Moderator
d) Reader
e) Inspetor
Ans. Prj Manager
Q8. Tester job is not to
A) Report Defect
b) Who entered the defect in system
Ans. Who entered the defect in system
Q9. Which one is not secondary role of tester
A) Raising Issues
b) Instilling Confidence
c) cts improving process
d) Insight
e) developer work
Ans. developer work
Q10. Acceptance testing is
A) White Box
b) Black box
c) White box & black Box
d) none of the above
Ans. Black box
Q11. Deming 14 principle includes
A) mobility of mgmt
b) new philosphy
c) adobt leadership
d) both b& c
e) both a & c
Ans. both b& c
Q12 Configuration Management tool used in which phase.
A) Unit tetsing
b) Integration
c) accepting
d) all the phases
Ans. all the phases
Q13. Max Defects created in which phases
A) req
b) design
c) Implementaion
d) Coding
Ans. Req
Q14. 50% Defect found in which phase
A) req
b) design
c) Implementaion
d) Coding
Ans. req
Q15. defects are least costly in which phase
A) req
b) design
c) Implementaion
d) Coding
Ans. req
Some questions from Paper2 are below:
1) Software inspections categorize defects as Wrong, Missing and Extra.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
2) The purpose of Risk Management in a project is to
A) Eliminate Risks
B) Minimize Risks
C) Avoid risks
D) Anticipate the risks
3) Testing of the system to demonstrate system compliance with user requirements is:
A) Black box testing
B) System testing
C) Independent testing
D) Acceptance Testing
4) Function point is a measure of
A) Effort
B) Complexity
C) Usability
D) None of the above
5) An activity that verifies compliance with policies and procedures and ensures that resources are conserved is
A) an inspection
B) an audit
C) a review
D) an assessment
6) Which is the application for the process management and quality improvement concepts to software development and maintenance.
A) Malcolm Baldridge
B) ISO 9000
C) QAI
D) QS14000
7) Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs?
A) 10-20
B) 30-60
C) 70-80
8) Software errors are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle?
A) Requirements
B) Construction
C) Acceptance test
D) Design
9) Which of the following test approaches is not a Functional test approach?
A) Control Technique
B) Stress Technique
C) Regression Technique
D) Cause/effect Graphing
E) Requirements
10) Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things
A) True
B) False
11) Juran is famous for
A) Quality Control
B) Quality Assurance
C) Trend Analysis
12) Top down & Bottom Up are the part of Incremental Testing
A) True
B) False
13) Achieving quality requires:
A) Understanding the customers expectations
B) Exceeding the customers expectations
C) Meeting all the definitions of quality
D) Focusing on the customer
E.) All the above
14) Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing
Objective Paper3:
Q1. there is a application which is delivered to the customer now customer found bugs and assume each bug cost is $125 and there are 4 bugs found each day and there are 5 working day. What should be the cost to fix those bugs
A) $300
b) $25000
c) $ 15000
d) $ 13,000
e) $ 26,000
Ans $2500
Q2. Tester should know
A) Test planning
b) Automation tool
c) Defect tracking tool
d) programming language
Ans. Defect Tracking tool
Q3. Pareto Analysis
A) 80-20 rule
b) Trend analysis
Ans. 80-20 Rule
Q4. Testing efforts in SDLC
A) 10-20 %
b) 30-60%
c) 60-80%
d) 80-90%
Ans 30-60%
Q5. Critical Listening is
A) Listen analyses what speaker said
b) Listen what is required
c) Listen only summary
Ans. Listen analyses what speaker said
Q6. Who finds vulnuralibility in system?
A) ICO
b) ISS
c) It Manager
Ans. ICO
Q7. COQ is not
A) Production
b) Appraisal
c) Prevention
d) Failure
Ans. Production
Q8. Training come under what category cost of quality?
A) Appraisal
b) Preventive
c) Failure
d) none of the above
Ans. Preventive
Q9. Why testing is called negative
A) Easy
b) delay in implementation
c) No training reqd
Q10. Incremental testing is Top down & bottom Up testing
A)True B) false
Q11. Effectiveness is doing right thing & efficency is doing thing right
True/ false
Ans False
Q12. Which one is not part of DemindA) Plan
b) do
c) check
d) act
e) risk analysis
Ans. risk analysis
Q13. Defect fixed in which phase is lease cost
A) same phase
b) production
c) next phase
d) none
Ans. same phase
Q14. In White box testing test coverage is
a) Decision
b) Statement
c) branch
d) modified decision
e) user specified data coverage
Ans. Decision
Q15. Test Plan should not contain
A) Scope
b) Objective
c) Policy
d) Risk Analysis
Ans. policy
Q16. This question was on Test coverage?
Q17. Acceptance Testing is the responsibility of the:
A) Programmer
B) Project Leader
C) Independent Tester
D) Assistance programmer
E) User/Customer
Q18. Cost of Quality is least among
A) Prevention
B) Appraisal
C) Failure
Subjective Paper1: (Most of the subjective questions were from the back of CSTE book.)
1. Why we need to test the software.
2. Write the procedure for Test Plan, Test Script, Test Status Report.
3. You have to test the Web Application, what should be considered for the same.
4. Write test cases for the Data model & data field validation.
5. There is applications which can be accessible by one terminal & other by multiple terminals, write the points which won’t be considered for the Single terminal Application (Test factors)
6. Write the Test Strategy.
Subjective Paper 2:
1. Differentiate between Verification & validation. 15 marks
2. Define Test Efficiency & test Effectiveness. 15 marks
3. Your client would like to do Acceptance test on one of your projects but does not know to prepare a test plan for that. Describe the components that should be included in the test plan. 30 marks
4. You are the tester in the organization and organization thinks that the tester also introduce defects in the system, write the 5 such defects introduced by tester in the system. 15 marks
5. What is Over Testing? 15 marks
6. You have to do the Unit Testing of the system, define what is Unit testing and how it can be done, what are the types of it also how can you ensure that your application is compliance to the standards. 30 marks
7. Define Equivalence portioning, Boundary value Analysis and Error Guessing with examples. 15 marks
8. Your company is doing a project in automation of aircrafts and timing. You are asked to involve in the testing. What should be the testing strategy for that. One Airline Web Application has to be tested, write test factor or What is to be tested? (Landing & take off) 15 marks
9. Define
a) Boundary Analysis
b) Equivalent Partitioning
c) Error Guessing
Give one example for each.
Subjective Paper 1 - December 2005:
1. Describe four tests you would use to test COTS software.
2. A Web-application is to be installed but suspected that it will might fail in production. Describe four tests you would recommend to your manager to answer the question “How long it would take for the application to recover after it fails”
3. You are the Test Manager of a company, which has outsourced its testing activities. What you would state to your IT Manager in terms of your responsibilities as Test Manager to give him assurance that testing would be conducted properly
4. Describe any four processes you would establish in a test environment and why?
Subjective Paper 2 - December 2005:
1. What would you include in a defect report.
2. What is “v” in v-testing concept and list the stages.
3. Draw a Unit testing workbench, describe each activity in the workbench.
4. You are to introduce automated testing tools. List any four automated test tools with vendor name and why did you choose them.
5. Describe Risk, risk analysis, threat, vulnerability, internal control.
6. Describe statement, branch, condition, expression, path coverage
7. Describe any 3 defect-related metrics.
8. For a web-based application, list 4 important quality factors you would test for. Also state why are they important.
HP QTP Certification HP-M016 Practice Exam Questions - 1
Q1. How many tabs are there in Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Q2. 'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window?
A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Web Settings
Q3. Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web Settings,Recovery
C) Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
D) Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
Q4. 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Recovery
Q5. For each object and method in an Expert View statement, a corresponding row exists in the Keyword View.
A) True
B) False
C) There is some problem with the statement.
D) None of above
Q6. The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view
A) Item, Operation, Value, Comments
B) Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C) Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D) Number, Operation, Value, Documentation
Q7. You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.
A) True
B) False
Q8. You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the Active screen after the recording session.
A) True
B) False
Q9. The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values and insert checkpoints?
A) True
B) False
Q10. A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen information saved with the test?
A) True
B) False
Q11. The toolbar enables you to view the details of an individual action or the entire test flow is:
A. Testing toolbar
B. None of the above
C. Action toolbar
D. Test Pane
Q12. The key that is used to Start/End analog recording mode ?
A. F3
B. SHIFT+ALT+F3
C. CTRL+SHIFT+F3
D. F10
Q13. QuickTest supports virtual object for analog or low-level recording.
A. False
B. True
Q14. To use a specific property to identify your object, but that property is not listed in the properties list. Then how do you identify that object?
A. Add the specific property to the list
B. Use the Default property
C. Use some other property to identify your object
Q15. The checkpoint used to check the alt attribute exists for all relevant objects (such as images) is
A. Database CheckPoint
B. Accessibility checkpoint
C. Bitmap checkpoint
D. Standard checkpoint
Q16. Bitmap checkpoint is supported in VB environment.
A. True
B. False
Q17. Can we parameterize the checkpoints properties?
A. No
B. Yes
Q18. What is the shortcut key that is used for a Standard Checkpoint?
A. F12
B. F2
C. F10
D. F7
Q19. Can we change name of checkpoint?
A. No
B. Yes
Q20. To compare the values of the specified property during a run session with the values stored for the same test object property within the test.
A. Checkpoint
B. All the above
C. Output Value
D. Compare the object property
Q21. You will use which recording mode for an object not recognized by QuickTest?
A. Low-Level Recording Mode
B. Normal recording Mode
C. Analog Mode
Q22. The statement that calls the recorded analog file is:
A. RunAnalog
B. CallAnalog
C. ExecuteAnalog
Q23. An action can be called by other tests or actions is:
A. Call Action
B. Split Action
C. Reusable Action
Q24. You can replace the page in your Active Screen tab:
A. False
B. True
Q25. QuickTest adds a checkpoint statement in the Expert View as:
A. Check Checkpoint
B. Checkpoint
Q26. A Checkpoint checks that a text string is displayed within a defined area in a Windows application is:
A. Accessibility
B. Text Area
C. Standard
D. Text
Q27. In ACTIVE X environment, an ACCESSIBILITY checkpoint is supported?
A. No
B. Yes
Q28. Can we get the execution time for an action in a Test?
A. Yes
B. No
Q29. Can we add external library files in QTP?
1. No
2. Yes
Q30. The method used to get data from HTML Table is
A. GetData(Row,Col)
B. GetRowValue(Rowid,Colname)
C. GetCellData (Row,Col)
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Q2. 'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window?
A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Web Settings
Q3. Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web Settings,Recovery
C) Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
D) Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
Q4. 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Recovery
Q5. For each object and method in an Expert View statement, a corresponding row exists in the Keyword View.
A) True
B) False
C) There is some problem with the statement.
D) None of above
Q6. The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view
A) Item, Operation, Value, Comments
B) Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C) Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D) Number, Operation, Value, Documentation
Q7. You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.
A) True
B) False
Q8. You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the Active screen after the recording session.
A) True
B) False
Q9. The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values and insert checkpoints?
A) True
B) False
Q10. A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen information saved with the test?
A) True
B) False
Q11. The toolbar enables you to view the details of an individual action or the entire test flow is:
A. Testing toolbar
B. None of the above
C. Action toolbar
D. Test Pane
Q12. The key that is used to Start/End analog recording mode ?
A. F3
B. SHIFT+ALT+F3
C. CTRL+SHIFT+F3
D. F10
Q13. QuickTest supports virtual object for analog or low-level recording.
A. False
B. True
Q14. To use a specific property to identify your object, but that property is not listed in the properties list. Then how do you identify that object?
A. Add the specific property to the list
B. Use the Default property
C. Use some other property to identify your object
Q15. The checkpoint used to check the alt attribute exists for all relevant objects (such as images) is
A. Database CheckPoint
B. Accessibility checkpoint
C. Bitmap checkpoint
D. Standard checkpoint
Q16. Bitmap checkpoint is supported in VB environment.
A. True
B. False
Q17. Can we parameterize the checkpoints properties?
A. No
B. Yes
Q18. What is the shortcut key that is used for a Standard Checkpoint?
A. F12
B. F2
C. F10
D. F7
Q19. Can we change name of checkpoint?
A. No
B. Yes
Q20. To compare the values of the specified property during a run session with the values stored for the same test object property within the test.
A. Checkpoint
B. All the above
C. Output Value
D. Compare the object property
Q21. You will use which recording mode for an object not recognized by QuickTest?
A. Low-Level Recording Mode
B. Normal recording Mode
C. Analog Mode
Q22. The statement that calls the recorded analog file is:
A. RunAnalog
B. CallAnalog
C. ExecuteAnalog
Q23. An action can be called by other tests or actions is:
A. Call Action
B. Split Action
C. Reusable Action
Q24. You can replace the page in your Active Screen tab:
A. False
B. True
Q25. QuickTest adds a checkpoint statement in the Expert View as:
A. Check Checkpoint
B. Checkpoint
Q26. A Checkpoint checks that a text string is displayed within a defined area in a Windows application is:
A. Accessibility
B. Text Area
C. Standard
D. Text
Q27. In ACTIVE X environment, an ACCESSIBILITY checkpoint is supported?
A. No
B. Yes
Q28. Can we get the execution time for an action in a Test?
A. Yes
B. No
Q29. Can we add external library files in QTP?
1. No
2. Yes
Q30. The method used to get data from HTML Table is
A. GetData(Row,Col)
B. GetRowValue(Rowid,Colname)
C. GetCellData (Row,Col)
HP QTP Certification HP-M016 Practice Exam Questions - 2
Q1. The Command used to insert the transactions in test is:
A. StartTransaction(Name�), EndTransaction(Name�)B
. Services.StartTransaction "Name", Services.EndTransaction "Name"
C. StartTransaction.services "Name�, EndTransaction.services "Name"
Q2. A step in which one or more values are captured at a specific point in your test and stored for the duration of the run session is:
A. Output Value
B. Checkpoints
C. Active Screen
Q3. QTP can detects an application crash and activate a defined recovery scenario to continue the run session.
A. True
B. false
Q4. In Batch Test process, the test list are saved in file format as:
A. *.mtb
B. *.mts
C. *.mbt
D. *.mtr
Q5. The command used to invoke other application from QTP:
A. InvokeApplication
B. SystemUtil.Run
C. Run
D. Both b & c
E. Both a & b
Q6. The command used to retrieve data from excel sheet is
A. Set ab = Connection("srcfilepath ") , Set ws = ab.getdata(sheetid)
B. Set ab = CreateObject("srcfilepath ") , Set ws = ab.getsheet(sheetid)
C. Set ab = GetObject("srcfilepath") , Set ws = ab.worksheets(sheetid)
Q7. The method that explicitly activates the recovery scenario mechanism is:
A. recovery.activate
B. enable
C. recovery.enable
D. activate
Q8. The method used for sending information to the test results is:
A. Reporter.log()
B. Reporter.reportevent()
C. Reporter.msgbox()
D. Reporter.report()
Q9. To terminate an application that is not responding we use:
A. SystemUtil.terminate
B. SystemUtil.Stop
C. SystemUtil.CloseProcessByName
Q10. The recovery mechanism does not handle triggers that occur in the last step of a test:
A. false
B. True
Q11. We can add Test object methods, function calls into the Test using:
A. Function generator
B. Step generator
C. Object repository
Q12. The method that adds to the test while implementing synchronization is:
A. Synchronize
B. Wait
C. WaitProperty
D. Pause
Q13. The mechanism used to identify objects during run session is:
A. Recovery scenario
B. Smart identification
C. Handling object
Q14. Post-recovery test run options specifies:
A. how to continue the run session after QTP identify the event
B. errors while running
C. recovery scenario during a run session
Q15. The action that can be called multiple times by the test as well as by other tests is called:
A. non-reusable action
B. Reusable action
C. External action
Q16. The command used to connect with Database is:
A. Createobject(connectivity name�)
B. dbconnect(connectivity name)
C. open(connectivity name)
D. None of the above
Q17. The method used to retrieve the folders is:
A. FileSystemObject.Getfolder()
B. FileSystemObject.selectfolder()
C. FileSystemObject.retrievefolder()
Q18. The method used to compare 2 XML files is:
A1. XMLfile1.compare(XMLfile2)
B. XMLcompare(file1,file2)
C. compare(XMLfile1,XMLfile2)
Q19. The QTP script files are stored in the extension of:
A. *.mts
B. *.usr
C. *.mtr
D. *.vbs
Q20. The method used to register the user-defined function with test object is:
A. setFunc()
B. RegisterUserFunc()
C. RegisterFunc()
Q21. The method used to open the specified URL in a browser is:
A. openURL()
B. navigateURL()
C. navigate()
Q22. The 3 Parameter types available in data driver is:
A. DataTable,Environment,Random number
B. DataTable,random number,unique
C. environment,string,numeric
Q23. The method added to the test while parameterizing is:
A. get Data (variable, dtGlobalSheet)
B. get DataTable(variable, dtGlobalSheet)
C. Set Data(variable, dtGlobalSheet)
D. Set DataTable(variable, dtGlobalSheet)
Q24. The length of the array can be get by the method:
A. length(array)
B. ubound(array)
C. count(array)
Q25. The method used to get the count value of list box or combo box is:
A. GetItemsCount
B. GetCount
C. GetItemCount
Q26. To retrieve the current the objects in your application during the run session:
A. GetVisibleText
B. GetROProperty
C. SetROProperty
D. GetTOProperty
Q27. The list of test objects and their properties and values are stored in the:A. Object Repository
B. Object Identification
Q28. The method used to continue the test execution after getting run-time error is:
1. On Error Resume Next
2. On Error Raise Next
3. On Error Next
A. StartTransaction(Name�), EndTransaction(Name�)B
. Services.StartTransaction "Name", Services.EndTransaction "Name"
C. StartTransaction.services "Name�, EndTransaction.services "Name"
Q2. A step in which one or more values are captured at a specific point in your test and stored for the duration of the run session is:
A. Output Value
B. Checkpoints
C. Active Screen
Q3. QTP can detects an application crash and activate a defined recovery scenario to continue the run session.
A. True
B. false
Q4. In Batch Test process, the test list are saved in file format as:
A. *.mtb
B. *.mts
C. *.mbt
D. *.mtr
Q5. The command used to invoke other application from QTP:
A. InvokeApplication
B. SystemUtil.Run
C. Run
D. Both b & c
E. Both a & b
Q6. The command used to retrieve data from excel sheet is
A. Set ab = Connection("srcfilepath ") , Set ws = ab.getdata(sheetid)
B. Set ab = CreateObject("srcfilepath ") , Set ws = ab.getsheet(sheetid)
C. Set ab = GetObject("srcfilepath") , Set ws = ab.worksheets(sheetid)
Q7. The method that explicitly activates the recovery scenario mechanism is:
A. recovery.activate
B. enable
C. recovery.enable
D. activate
Q8. The method used for sending information to the test results is:
A. Reporter.log()
B. Reporter.reportevent()
C. Reporter.msgbox()
D. Reporter.report()
Q9. To terminate an application that is not responding we use:
A. SystemUtil.terminate
B. SystemUtil.Stop
C. SystemUtil.CloseProcessByName
Q10. The recovery mechanism does not handle triggers that occur in the last step of a test:
A. false
B. True
Q11. We can add Test object methods, function calls into the Test using:
A. Function generator
B. Step generator
C. Object repository
Q12. The method that adds to the test while implementing synchronization is:
A. Synchronize
B. Wait
C. WaitProperty
D. Pause
Q13. The mechanism used to identify objects during run session is:
A. Recovery scenario
B. Smart identification
C. Handling object
Q14. Post-recovery test run options specifies:
A. how to continue the run session after QTP identify the event
B. errors while running
C. recovery scenario during a run session
Q15. The action that can be called multiple times by the test as well as by other tests is called:
A. non-reusable action
B. Reusable action
C. External action
Q16. The command used to connect with Database is:
A. Createobject(connectivity name�)
B. dbconnect(connectivity name)
C. open(connectivity name)
D. None of the above
Q17. The method used to retrieve the folders is:
A. FileSystemObject.Getfolder()
B. FileSystemObject.selectfolder()
C. FileSystemObject.retrievefolder()
Q18. The method used to compare 2 XML files is:
A1. XMLfile1.compare(XMLfile2)
B. XMLcompare(file1,file2)
C. compare(XMLfile1,XMLfile2)
Q19. The QTP script files are stored in the extension of:
A. *.mts
B. *.usr
C. *.mtr
D. *.vbs
Q20. The method used to register the user-defined function with test object is:
A. setFunc()
B. RegisterUserFunc()
C. RegisterFunc()
Q21. The method used to open the specified URL in a browser is:
A. openURL()
B. navigateURL()
C. navigate()
Q22. The 3 Parameter types available in data driver is:
A. DataTable,Environment,Random number
B. DataTable,random number,unique
C. environment,string,numeric
Q23. The method added to the test while parameterizing is:
A. get Data (variable, dtGlobalSheet)
B. get DataTable(variable, dtGlobalSheet)
C. Set Data(variable, dtGlobalSheet)
D. Set DataTable(variable, dtGlobalSheet)
Q24. The length of the array can be get by the method:
A. length(array)
B. ubound(array)
C. count(array)
Q25. The method used to get the count value of list box or combo box is:
A. GetItemsCount
B. GetCount
C. GetItemCount
Q26. To retrieve the current the objects in your application during the run session:
A. GetVisibleText
B. GetROProperty
C. SetROProperty
D. GetTOProperty
Q27. The list of test objects and their properties and values are stored in the:A. Object Repository
B. Object Identification
Q28. The method used to continue the test execution after getting run-time error is:
1. On Error Resume Next
2. On Error Raise Next
3. On Error Next
HP QTP Certification HP-M016 Practice Exam Questions - 3
Q1. 'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window.
A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Web Settings
Q2. How many tabs are there in Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 8
Q3. Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, WebSettings,Recovery
C) Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web,Recovery
D) Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
Q4. 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings)window
A) Properties
B) Web
C) Resources
D) Recovery
Q5. The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view
A) Item, Operation, Value, Comments
B) Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C) Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D) Number, Operation, Value, Documentation
Q6. For each object and method in an Expert View statement, acorresponding row exists in the Keyword View.
A) True
B) False
C) There is a problem with the statement.
D) None of above
Q7. You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.
A) True
B) False
Q8. You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the Active screen after the recording session.
A) True
B) False
Q9. The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values andinsert checkpoints
A) True
B) False
Q10. A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen informationsaved with the test.A) True
B) False
Q11. The Information pane provides a list of............. in the test:A) Semantic errors
B) Syntax errors
C) Common errors
D) Logic errors
Q12. When we switch from Expert view to the Keyword view, QTPautomatically checks for syntax errors in tQ16. The Data Table does not assists you in parameterizing your test.
A) True
he test and shows them in theinformation pane.A) True
B) False
Q13. If the information pane is not open, QTP automatically opens it incase a syntax error is detected.A) True
B) False
Q14. ..................... provides a list of the resources that arespecified in your test but cannot be found.A) Missing pane
B) Missing Resources pane
C) Resources pane
D) Missing Items pane
Q15. Whenever you open a test or a function library, QTP automaticallychecks for the availability of specified resources.
A) True
B) False
B) False
Q17. Tabs in the Debug Viewer pane are:
A) Watch, Variables, Debug
B) Watch, Data, Command
C) Watch, Variables, Command
D) View, Variables, Command
Q18. ............... tab enables you to view the current value of anyvariable or VBScript expression.
A) Watch
B) VIew
C) Locate
D) Current
Q19. The .... tab displays the current value of all variables that havebeen recognized up to the last step performed in the run session.
A) View
B)Variables
C) Locate
D) Current
Q20. The .........tab enables you to run a line of script to set ormodify the current value of a variable or VBScript object in your testor function library.
A) View
B) Variables
C) Command
D) Current
Q21. Panes in QTP can have one of the following states—docked or floating.
A) True
B) False
Q22. Which of the following statement is True:
A) QuickTest enables you to open and work on one test at a time
B) QuickTest enables you to open and work on two tests at a time
C) QuickTest enables you to open and work on predefined number of testsat a time
D) QuickTest enables you to open and work on nine test at a time
Q23. Which of the following statement is True:
A) You can open and work on two function libraries simultaneously
B) You can open and work on multiple function libraries simultaneously
C) You can open and work on nine function libraries simultaneously
D) You can open and work on one function library at a time
Q24. You can open any function library, regardless of whether it isassociated with the currently open test.
A) True
B) False
Q25. You can work with multiple documents (test, component, orapplication area, function libraries) using the...... dialog box
A) Panes
B) Display
C) Show
D) Windows
Answers:-->
A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Web Settings
Q2. How many tabs are there in Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 8
Q3. Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, WebSettings,Recovery
C) Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web,Recovery
D) Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
Q4. 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings)window
A) Properties
B) Web
C) Resources
D) Recovery
Q5. The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view
A) Item, Operation, Value, Comments
B) Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C) Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D) Number, Operation, Value, Documentation
Q6. For each object and method in an Expert View statement, acorresponding row exists in the Keyword View.
A) True
B) False
C) There is a problem with the statement.
D) None of above
Q7. You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.
A) True
B) False
Q8. You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the Active screen after the recording session.
A) True
B) False
Q9. The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values andinsert checkpoints
A) True
B) False
Q10. A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen informationsaved with the test.A) True
B) False
Q11. The Information pane provides a list of............. in the test:A) Semantic errors
B) Syntax errors
C) Common errors
D) Logic errors
Q12. When we switch from Expert view to the Keyword view, QTPautomatically checks for syntax errors in tQ16. The Data Table does not assists you in parameterizing your test.
A) True
he test and shows them in theinformation pane.A) True
B) False
Q13. If the information pane is not open, QTP automatically opens it incase a syntax error is detected.A) True
B) False
Q14. ..................... provides a list of the resources that arespecified in your test but cannot be found.A) Missing pane
B) Missing Resources pane
C) Resources pane
D) Missing Items pane
Q15. Whenever you open a test or a function library, QTP automaticallychecks for the availability of specified resources.
A) True
B) False
B) False
Q17. Tabs in the Debug Viewer pane are:
A) Watch, Variables, Debug
B) Watch, Data, Command
C) Watch, Variables, Command
D) View, Variables, Command
Q18. ............... tab enables you to view the current value of anyvariable or VBScript expression.
A) Watch
B) VIew
C) Locate
D) Current
Q19. The .... tab displays the current value of all variables that havebeen recognized up to the last step performed in the run session.
A) View
B)Variables
C) Locate
D) Current
Q20. The .........tab enables you to run a line of script to set ormodify the current value of a variable or VBScript object in your testor function library.
A) View
B) Variables
C) Command
D) Current
Q21. Panes in QTP can have one of the following states—docked or floating.
A) True
B) False
Q22. Which of the following statement is True:
A) QuickTest enables you to open and work on one test at a time
B) QuickTest enables you to open and work on two tests at a time
C) QuickTest enables you to open and work on predefined number of testsat a time
D) QuickTest enables you to open and work on nine test at a time
Q23. Which of the following statement is True:
A) You can open and work on two function libraries simultaneously
B) You can open and work on multiple function libraries simultaneously
C) You can open and work on nine function libraries simultaneously
D) You can open and work on one function library at a time
Q24. You can open any function library, regardless of whether it isassociated with the currently open test.
A) True
B) False
Q25. You can work with multiple documents (test, component, orapplication area, function libraries) using the...... dialog box
A) Panes
B) Display
C) Show
D) Windows
Answers:-->
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